Wunder Fund Round 2016 (Div. 1 + Div. 2 combined) CF618A A. Slime Combining
2016-02-01 21:47
429 查看
A. Slime Combining
time limit per test2 seconds
memory limit per test256 megabytes
inputstandard input
outputstandard output
Your friend recently gave you some slimes for your birthday. You have n slimes all initially with value 1.
You are going to play a game with these slimes. Initially, you put a single slime by itself in a row. Then, you will add the other n - 1 slimes one by one. When you add a slime, you place it at the right of all already placed slimes. Then, while the last two slimes in the row have the same value v, you combine them together to create a slime with value v + 1.
You would like to see what the final state of the row is after you’ve added all n slimes. Please print the values of the slimes in the row from left to right.
Input
The first line of the input will contain a single integer, n (1 ≤ n ≤ 100 000).
Output
Output a single line with k integers, where k is the number of slimes in the row after you’ve finished the procedure described in the problem statement. The i-th of these numbers should be the value of the i-th slime from the left.
Sample test(s)
input
1
output
1
input
2
output
2
input
3
output
2 1
input
8
output
4
Note
In the first sample, we only have a single slime with value 1. The final state of the board is just a single slime with value 1.
In the second sample, we perform the following steps:
Initially we place a single slime in a row by itself. Thus, row is initially 1.
Then, we will add another slime. The row is now 1 1. Since two rightmost slimes have the same values, we should replace these slimes with one with value 2. Thus, the final state of the board is 2.
In the third sample, after adding the first two slimes, our row is 2. After adding one more slime, the row becomes 2 1.
In the last sample, the steps look as follows:
1
2
2 1
3
3 1
3 2
3 2 1
4
题意:
看样例的话题目还是比较好理解,大概就是第一个数为1,之后每次操作都在当前数后面的一个数字再加1,如果最右边的两个数的值相等,则最后一个数消除,前一个数在原来值的基础上再加1。现给出数n,求经过n次操作后得到的一串数列是什么。
思路:
方法其实很简单,把前几个数给写出来,如果能看出是二进制规律的话那就so easy啦!二进制从i = 20开始往前遍历,如果pow(2,i * 1.0) <= n,则把i + 1输出,并把n减去pow(2,i * 1.0) ,当n == 0时,结束循环并退出。切记是i + 1!比赛的时候这个坑找了宝宝半天有没有思密达!
time limit per test2 seconds
memory limit per test256 megabytes
inputstandard input
outputstandard output
Your friend recently gave you some slimes for your birthday. You have n slimes all initially with value 1.
You are going to play a game with these slimes. Initially, you put a single slime by itself in a row. Then, you will add the other n - 1 slimes one by one. When you add a slime, you place it at the right of all already placed slimes. Then, while the last two slimes in the row have the same value v, you combine them together to create a slime with value v + 1.
You would like to see what the final state of the row is after you’ve added all n slimes. Please print the values of the slimes in the row from left to right.
Input
The first line of the input will contain a single integer, n (1 ≤ n ≤ 100 000).
Output
Output a single line with k integers, where k is the number of slimes in the row after you’ve finished the procedure described in the problem statement. The i-th of these numbers should be the value of the i-th slime from the left.
Sample test(s)
input
1
output
1
input
2
output
2
input
3
output
2 1
input
8
output
4
Note
In the first sample, we only have a single slime with value 1. The final state of the board is just a single slime with value 1.
In the second sample, we perform the following steps:
Initially we place a single slime in a row by itself. Thus, row is initially 1.
Then, we will add another slime. The row is now 1 1. Since two rightmost slimes have the same values, we should replace these slimes with one with value 2. Thus, the final state of the board is 2.
In the third sample, after adding the first two slimes, our row is 2. After adding one more slime, the row becomes 2 1.
In the last sample, the steps look as follows:
1
2
2 1
3
3 1
3 2
3 2 1
4
题意:
看样例的话题目还是比较好理解,大概就是第一个数为1,之后每次操作都在当前数后面的一个数字再加1,如果最右边的两个数的值相等,则最后一个数消除,前一个数在原来值的基础上再加1。现给出数n,求经过n次操作后得到的一串数列是什么。
思路:
方法其实很简单,把前几个数给写出来,如果能看出是二进制规律的话那就so easy啦!二进制从i = 20开始往前遍历,如果pow(2,i * 1.0) <= n,则把i + 1输出,并把n减去pow(2,i * 1.0) ,当n == 0时,结束循环并退出。切记是i + 1!比赛的时候这个坑找了宝宝半天有没有思密达!
#include<bits/stdc++.h> using namespace std; int main() { int n; while(cin>>n) { for(int i = 20; i >= 0; i--) { if(pow(2,i * 1.0) <= n) { n -= pow(2,i * 1.0); if(!n) { cout<<i + 1<<endl; break; } cout<<i + 1<<" "; } } } return 0; }
相关文章推荐
- Codeforces Round #197 (Div. 2)
- Codeforces Round #198 (Div. 1)
- Codeforces 405E Codeforces Round #238 (Div. 2)E
- Codeforces 407C Codeforces Round #239 (Div. 1)C
- CodeForces 449A - Jzzhu and Chocolate
- CodeForces 449 B. Jzzhu and Cities
- Codeforces Round #265 (Div. 2)
- Codeforces #310 div2 C. Case of Matryoshkas
- 状态压缩DP codeforces 244 Problem C. The Brand New Function 和 codeforces 165 E. Compatible Numbers
- codeforces 16 Problem E fish
- Codeforces Round332 部分题解
- CodeForces 603A_Alternative Thinking (DP)
- CodeForces 602B_Approximating a Constant Range_DP
- Codeforces round #247 for Div. 2
- Codeforces Round #246 (Div. 2)
- Codeforces #264(div 2)D.Gargari and Permutations
- Codeforces Round #236 (Div. 2)------A,B
- codeforces 257 div2 B
- Codeforces Gym100571A Cursed Query
- Codeforces Gym100342E Minima